Re: If Russia's suffered 200k+ and Ukraine <50k, then.. how?
This appears to contradict the Bbc/Mediazona's own research. Why could this be?
Probably the conflation of "casualties" with "killed". 200,000 casualties is not inconsistent with 60,000 killed.
Lazy reporters and commentards (and believe me, there are few people lazier - intellectually speaking - than those who write commentary and leaders in the British press) often tend to overlook the difference, and start talking as if all "casualties" were dead. 'Tain't like that.